Đề thi mẫu Kỳ thi đánh giá năng lực Đại học Quốc gia thành phố Hồ Chí Minh năm 2021 - Bài thi Tiếng Anh
VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (Questions 01 – 20)
Directions: Each of the following sentences contains a blank. From the four choices given,
select the one that can be inserted in the blank to either form a grammatically correct
sentence or to be the most appropriate to the meaning of the context. Then, fill in the
corresponding circle on the answer sheet.
▪ Number of questions: 20
▪ Vocabulary focus:
The tested lexical items are basically selected from the official text books of the high school
English program, grades 10, 11 and 12 with the main focus on grade 12.
▪ Grammar focus:
The tested grammar contents are basically selected from the official text books of the high
school English program, grades 10, 11 and 12 with the main focus on grade 12.
▪ Example:
1. The technician is coming tomorrow to ________ the new computer system.
A. cut
B. stop
C. decorate
D. install
The answer is (D). (A), (B) and (C) are not appropriate because cut, stop and decorate do
not collocate with the new computer system.
2. These yellow lines do not allow parking at certain times. It means that you ________
park here.
A. can’t
B. shouldn’t
C. needn’t
D. mightn’t
Trang 1
Trang 2
Trang 3
Trang 4
Trang 5
Trang 6
Trang 7
Trang 8
Trang 9
Trang 10
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Tóm tắt nội dung tài liệu: Đề thi mẫu Kỳ thi đánh giá năng lực Đại học Quốc gia thành phố Hồ Chí Minh năm 2021 - Bài thi Tiếng Anh
s the best revision of sentence 3? A. He got several sponsors which subsidized his trip. B. He got several sponsors subsidized by his trip. C. He got several sponsors, subsidizing his trip. D. He got several sponsors who subsidized his trip. 62. Which of the following is the best revision of the underlined part in sentence 5? A. he felt it was too easy B. it was felt too easy C. they were felt too easy D. feeling too easy 63. Which of the following is the best revision of sentence 8? A. Therefore, that was nothing new, since several people had built their own boats and sailed them around the world. B. Conversely, that was nothing new, but several people had built their own boats and sailed them around the world. C. However, that was nothing new, because several people had built their own boats and sailed them around the world. International University fb.com/tuvantuyensinh.dhqt.dhqgtphcm _____________________________________________________________________________________ International University – VNU-HCMC, Official handbook for the English Test, page 32 D. Likely, that was nothing new, because several people had built their own boats and sailed them around the world. 64. Which of the following is the best revision of the underlined part in sentence 10? A. sail around the world in a boat which was built exclusively of ice cream sticks B. to sail around the world in a boat built exclusively of ice cream sticks C. sailing around the world in a boat building exclusively of ice cream sticks D. who wanted to sail around the world in a boat building exclusively of ice cream sticks 65. Which of the following is the best revision of sentence 16? A. He will sail across the Atlantic to Canada and then down to Florida and through the Panama Canal then, will travel to Los Angeles, Honolulu, Tokyo around the tip of Africa, and back to Holland. B. He will sail across the Atlantic to Canada, and then down to Florida and through the Panama Canal then will travel to Los Angeles Honolulu Tokyo around the tip of Africa, and back to Holland. C. He will sail across the Atlantic to Canada and then down to Florida and through the Panama Canal then will travel to Los Angeles, Honolulu, Tokyo around the tip of Africa, and back to Holland. D. He will sail across the Atlantic to Canada, and then down to Florida and through the Panama Canal, then he will travel to Los Angeles, Honolulu, Tokyo, around the tip of Africa, and back to Holland. Questions 66 – 70 refer to the following passage. (1) Michelle Brown was a single woman in her late twenties. (2) She lived in southern California and worked as a credit analyst. (3) She was cheerful, and people found her fun to be around. (4) Friends were always telling her how nice she was. (5) She was tidy with her finances. (6) She owned fifteen credit cards but had never been late on a single payment. (7) Ever since she was seventeen, she had perfect credit. International University fb.com/tuvantuyensinh.dhqt.dhqgtphcm _____________________________________________________________________________________ International University – VNU-HCMC, Official handbook for the English Test, page 33 (8) On a winter day, Michelle received a message from someone at the bank about her new Dodge Ram pickup and the payment past due on the loan. (9) She returned the call and told the bank officer that there had to be a mistake; she hadn’t bought a truck. (10) The officer quickly agreed that he must have had the wrong Michelle Brown. (11) The phone numbers on the credit application wasn’t working. (12) To prove beyond a doubt that it was another Michelle Brown he was searching for, she told him her Social Security number. (13) She was stunned – it was the same one that was on the application. (14) Alarmed, she called up the credit reporting agencies and told them that something fishy was going on. (15) They put a fraud alert on their credit and promised to send out a report on their recent purchases. (16) She checked with the Division of Motor vehicles and learned something astonishing: a duplicate driver’s license had recently been issued to a Michelle Brown. (17) Someone else was using her name: her address, her Social Security number; and her driver’s license. (18) It was as if someone was slowly erasing her identity. (19) She had never broken a law, any law. (20) In time, she would learn that there was an arrest warrant out for Michelle Brown in Texas. (21) How could she be wanted by the police? (22) The charge was conspiracy to sell marijuana. 66. Which of the following is the best combination of sentence 5 and sentence 6? A. She was tidy with her finances so she owned fifteen credit cards but had never been late on a single payment. B. Because she was tidy with her finances, she owned fifteen credit cards but had never been late on a single payment. C. She was tidy with her finances - she owned fifteen credit cards but had never been late on a single payment. D. She was tidy with her finances, but she owned fifteen credit cards but had never been late on a single payment. 67. Which of the following is the best revision of the underlined part in sentence 11? A. isn’t working B. haven’t been working International University fb.com/tuvantuyensinh.dhqt.dhqgtphcm _____________________________________________________________________________________ International University – VNU-HCMC, Official handbook for the English Test, page 34 C. aren’t working D. weren’t working 68. Which of the following is the best revision of sentence 15? A. They put a fraud alert on her credit and promised to send out a report on their recent purchases. B. They put a fraud alert on their credit and promised to send out a report on her recent purchases. C. They put a fraud alert on her credit and promised to send out a report on her recent purchases. D. They put a fraud alert on a credit and promised to send out a report on her recent purchases. 69. Which of the following is the best revision of sentence 17? A. Someone else was using her name, her address, her Social Security number, and her driver’s license. B. Someone else was using her name, her address; her Social Security number and her driver’s license. C. Someone else was using her name her address, her Social Security number and her driver’s license. D. Someone else was using her name; her address; her Social Security number; and her driver’s license. 70. Which of the following is the best order of sentences 19-22? A. 19, 21, 20, 22 B. 20, 22, 19, 21 C. 21, 19, 20, 22 D. 22, 19, 21, 20 International University fb.com/tuvantuyensinh.dhqt.dhqgtphcm _____________________________________________________________________________________ International University – VNU-HCMC, Official handbook for the English Test, page 35 III. LISTENING SECTION (Optional section) In the Listening section, you will be asked to demonstrate how well you understand spoken English. The entire Listening test will last approximately 25 minutes. There are three parts to this section, with particular directions for each part. LISTENING PART 1 (Questions 71 – 80) Directions: For each question in this part, you will hear four statements about a picture in your test booklet. When you hear the statements, you must select the one statement that best describes what you see in the picture. Then find the number of the question on your answer sheet and fill in the corresponding circle of your answer. The statements will not be printed in your test booklet and will be spoken only ONCE. Look at the example item below. Example Statement (B), “the man is working at the desk”, is the best description of the picture, so you should select answer (B) and mark it on your answer sheet. International University fb.com/tuvantuyensinh.dhqt.dhqgtphcm _____________________________________________________________________________________ International University – VNU-HCMC, Official handbook for the English Test, page 36 71. (A) (B) (C) (D) 72. (A) (B) (C) (D) 73. (A) (B) (C) (D) 74. (A) (B) (C) (D) 75. (A) (B) (C) (D) 76. (A) (B) (C) (D) International University fb.com/tuvantuyensinh.dhqt.dhqgtphcm _____________________________________________________________________________________ International University – VNU-HCMC, Official handbook for the English Test, page 37 77. (A) (B) (C) (D) 78. (A) (B) (C) (D) 79. (A) (B) (C) (D) 80. (A) (B) (C) (D) International University fb.com/tuvantuyensinh.dhqt.dhqgtphcm _____________________________________________________________________________________ International University – VNU-HCMC, Official handbook for the English Test, page 38 LISTENING PART 2 (Questions 81 – 90) Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear four short selections. At the end of each selection, you will be asked two or three questions about what was said, each followed by four possible answers, (A), (B), (C) or (D). The questions and answers are printed in your test booklet. You will hear each selection only ONCE. Select the BEST answer and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. There is no sample question for this part. Questions 81 – 82 refer to the following conversation 81. Where does the conversation take place? A. in a school B. in a factory C. in the library D. in a doctor’s office 82. What is Ms. Henderson doing? A. having an interview with a Chemistry teacher B. making an appointment with a doctor C. having a meeting with the library staff D. putting goods into the warehouse Questions 83 – 84 refer to the following talk 83. What happened in the first accident? A. A car collided with a truck. B. Two trucks slid off the road. C. A car hit a bus. D. The driver fell asleep in his truck. 84. What time did the second accident occur? A. 12:00. B. 1:00. International University fb.com/tuvantuyensinh.dhqt.dhqgtphcm _____________________________________________________________________________________ International University – VNU-HCMC, Official handbook for the English Test, page 39 C. 1:30. D. 2:00. Questions 85 – 87 refer to the following conversation 85. When will the film start? A. in fifteen minutes B. in five minutes C. in ten minutes D. in twenty minutes 86. What does the woman want to eat? A. popcorn B. a pizza C. a hamburger D. a sandwich 87. What else does the woman want? A. a coke B. an orange juice C. a lemonade D. a beer Questions 88 – 90 refer to the following talk 88. Who most likely is the speaker? A. a visitor to a museum B. a museum tour guide C. a police D. an artist 89. How long will guests be on their own? A. for a couple of hours B. for half an hour International University fb.com/tuvantuyensinh.dhqt.dhqgtphcm _____________________________________________________________________________________ International University – VNU-HCMC, Official handbook for the English Test, page 40 C. for an hour D. as much as they want 90. What will happen at noon? A. The tour will start. B. The bus will start. C. They will go to a famous restaurant. D. They will visit the gift shops. LISTENING PART 3 (Questions 91 – 100) Directions: You will now hear some extended dialogues or monologues. You will hear each passage only ONCE. After each dialogue or monologue, you will be asked several questions about what you have just heard. These questions are also printed in your test booklet. Select the best answer to each question from among the four choices printed in your test booklet and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. There is no sample question for this part. Questions 91 – 95 refer to the following conversation 91. Why does the student visit the professor? A. To discuss an upcoming assignment B. To talk about his recent presentation C. To dispute a grade he received D. To go over a report he just wrote 92. How does the student feel about the grade he received? A. Disappointed B. Excited C. Very angry D. Happy International University fb.com/tuvantuyensinh.dhqt.dhqgtphcm _____________________________________________________________________________________ International University – VNU-HCMC, Official handbook for the English Test, page 41 93. What does the professor say about the student’s presentation? A. The student made a few factual errors. B. The student’s presentation was better than everyone else’s. C. The student’s presentation was not well-organized. D. The student made some spelling errors. 94. What can be inferred about the professor? A. He explains to his students exactly what they did wrong on their work. B. He allows his students to resubmit their work to get a higher grade. C. He prefers to have his students give presentations than to take tests. D. He gives fairly high grades to the majority of his students 95. What can be inferred from the student’s response to the professor: “Factual errors? But I checked over everything I said twice”? A. He is upset with himself for being wrong. B. He doubts what the professor just told him. C. He thinks the professor graded him too low. D. He wants the professor to reconsider his grade. Questions 96 – 100 refer to the following lecture/ discussion 96. What is the lecture mainly about? A. The birds in the South B. The food the birds prefer C. The reason why birds migrate D. The places where birds can get food 97. What does the professor means when he says, “That’s part of the reason. But there is another one, too.”? A. To indicate that the student’s answer totally correct B. To indicate that the student’s answer totally wrong C. To indicate that the student’s answer is incomplete D. To indicate that the student’s answer is not interesting International University fb.com/tuvantuyensinh.dhqt.dhqgtphcm _____________________________________________________________________________________ International University – VNU-HCMC, Official handbook for the English Test, page 42 98. According to the professor, what is the main reason that birds migrate? A. food B. spring C. instinct D. accommodation 99. How does the professor talk about bird migration? A. By giving an example of one species of bird migration B. By comparing different destinations birds migrate to C. By giving explanations why birds migrate D. By listing characteristics of birds 100. What happens to the food sources in Northern climes during winter? A. There is no food. B. The amount of food available decreases. C. The amount of food increases. D. There are more food sources. This is the end of the English Test.
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